1 gene = 1 polypeptide - Biology Forum

last updated by

student12 18 years, 3 months ago

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- August 23, 2006 at 11:06 am #5551
  student12
  Participant
  Correct me if I am wrong, but doesn’t one gene code for one polypeptide?
  Why I ask this question some may wonder…it’s b/c one question i run acrossed asked:
  Describe 2 reasons why geneticist have reevaluated their traditional view that one gene codes for one polypeptide.
- August 23, 2006 at 1:22 pm #53818
  weesper
  Participant
  because through the process of splicing one parent transcript may be spliced into various alternative forms which can be all be translated into different types of peptide chains for example in different tissues or different stages of development.
- August 23, 2006 at 6:04 pm #53832
  MrMistery
  Participant
  That is the reason why the cistron notion has been introduced.
  Another reason for reevaluating this theorem is the fact that a gene can code for a RNA that is not translated(e.g. rRNA, tRNA, snRNA, snoRNA etc)
- August 25, 2006 at 10:16 am #53890
  student12
  Participant
  quote weesper:
  because through the process of splicing one parent transcript may be spliced into various alternative forms which can be all be translated into different types of peptide chains for example in different tissues or different stages of development.
  Doesn’t 1 gene code for a polypeptide which can then be further modified, either by the addition of various molecules or by splicing out certain regions?
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