April 11, 2006 at 10:04 am #4395biology_06erParticipant
Could someone please explain how we define say someone showing the trait of polydactyly/achondroplasia as having the dominant allele/or saying that 99.99% of people show the rexessive allele-why dont we just say like other traits eg left hand that the above inheritances are recessive?
Hope I’m making sense
April 11, 2006 at 10:19 am #45662Cloak & DaggerParticipant
I’m not really sure I understand your question but here’s an answer anyway.
The dominance or recessiveness of an allele is dependent on the mode of function of the gene not just on how common it is. An allele is dominant if it causes a phenotype with only one copy (irrespective of what the other copy is) whereas a recessive allele requires both copies to be recessive to have any effect on the phenotype.
http://www.ndsu.edu/instruct/mcclean/pl … endel8.htm
The link explains it better than I did. 🙂
April 11, 2006 at 10:50 am #45664biology_06erParticipant
Yep I think I get it now!..Thanks 🙂
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