Biology Forum › Community › General Discussion › Virus question…
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- January 22, 2009 at 4:50 pm #10788
biodawgzParticipantThe question is true or false: All virus particles produced from infected cells are infectious.
I find this to be very confusing. On the one hand, some virions are non-infective if they become damaged or are missing part of the genome in the cell. I know that a virus particle is non-infective if it cannot replicate, but am not sure if ‘produced’ means replicated.
Is the question saying this: A cell is injected with a virus. Are all virus particles that replicate infectious?
or is it saying. A cell is injected with a virus. Are all the virus particles from this injection in the cell infectious.
- January 22, 2009 at 6:29 pm #88623jonmoultonParticipant
I’d read that question as asking whether all of the viral particles released from an infected cell are also infectious.
- January 22, 2009 at 9:39 pm #88627biodawgzParticipant
and would you agree with me, that No they are not.
- January 23, 2009 at 1:08 am #88631jonmoultonParticipant
"some virions are non-infective if they become damaged or are missing part of the genome in the cell"
- January 26, 2009 at 9:03 am #88689biohazardParticipant
I think many viruses, especially those with high mutation rates such as retroviruses, produce vast numbers of viral particles that are not infectious. Many mutations easily render some crucial receptor-binding protein or viral enzyme inactive, and thus the virus cannot infect its target cells.
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